Reasoning is one of the most important topics and carrying a good weightage thus, requires good practice in order to clear the section. In this article today we will be discussing some Important Reasoning Topics with Practice Questions for IBPS Clerk Prelims. The exact date for the IBPS Clerk prelims examination is not released yet, however all serious candidates must have already started preparing by now. Our advice would be to start practicing from the most important topics for both reasoning and quant. For those who are in search of previous year paper we have IBPS Clerk Previous Year Paper PDF with Solutions.
Mentioned below are some important topics for reasoning:
IBPS Clerk Prelims Free Mock Test
Question 1: In the question below, two statements are given followed by conclusions: I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Only a few trees are roots
Only a few stems are roots
Conclusions:
I. No stems is trees
II. At least some stems are trees
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Both the conclusions I and II follow
D) Either the conclusion I or II follows
E) Neither conclusion I or II follows
Answer: D)
Solution:
Following figure can be formed from the statement:
So, some stems can be trees which means conclusion I not follows similarly some stems can be trees so conclusion II also not follows.
Hence, option d.
Question 2: In the question below, three statements are given followed by conclusions: I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some flags are charts.
Some buses are flags.
All buses are charts.
Conclusion:
I. Some charts are definitely not flags.
II. All flags being buses is a possibility.
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Both the conclusions I and II follow
D) Either the conclusion I or II follows
E) Neither conclusion I or II follows
Answer: B)
Solution:
Following figures can be formed from the statements:
As shown in the figure all flags can be buses so, conclusion II follows.
Hence, option b.
Question 3: In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All yawks are goats
Some goats are olds
Only a few olds are sheeps
Conclusions:
I. Some sheeps can never be olds
II. All olds can be sheeps
A) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Only conclusion I follows
D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E) None of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
Following figure can be formed from the statements:
Some sheeps are olds as shown in the figure so conclusion I not follows.
Only a few olds are sheeps which means some olds are definitely not sheeps so conclusions II also not follows.
Hence, option d.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Free Mock Test
Question 4: In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
No towns are countries.
All countries are places.
No cities are towns.
Conclusions:
I. A few towns being places is a possibility.
II. Some countries may be cities.
A) Only conclusion II follows
B) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
C) Only conclusion I follows
D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E) None of these
Answer: B)
Solution:
Following figure can be formed:
From the figure, both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
Hence, option b.
Question 5: In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
A few apples are mangoes.
All mangoes are papayas.
No grapes are apples.
Conclusions:
I. No grapes are papayas.
II. Some mangoes are not grapes.
A) Only conclusion II follows
B) None of these
C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
E) Only conclusion I follows
Answer: A)
Solution:
Following figure can be formed:
From the figure, only conclusion II follows.
Hence, option a.
Question 1: In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.
Statements:
L ≥ Z < P > Q; R > M; M > P ≥ G
Conclusions:
I. R > G
II. R > Q
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusions II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
E) Either conclusion I or II follows
Answer: C)
Solution:
Given statements: L ≥ Z < P > Q; R > M; M > P ≥ G
On combining, we get, R > M > P ≥ G and R > M > P > Q
Conclusions:
I. R > G: True(R > M > P ≥ G, R > G)
II. R > Q: True(R > M > P > Q, R > Q)
Hence, option c.
Question 2: In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.
Statement:
G ≤ T < B > M > Z < I > N = K ≥ O > L
Conclusions:
I. M > N
II. I > L
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusions II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
E) Either conclusion I or II follows
Answer: B)
Solution:
Given statement:
G ≤ T < B > M > Z < I > N = K ≥ O > L
Conclusions
I. M > N: False (M > Z < I > N, the relationship between M and N can’t be established)
II. I > L: True (I > N = K ≥ O > L, so, I > L)
Hence, option b.
Question 3: In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.
Statements:
S > T > B; G > K ≤ B > N
Conclusions:
I. G > N
II. S > K
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusions II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
E) Either conclusion I or II follows
Answer: B)
Solution:
Given statements:
S > T > B; G > K ≤ B > N
On combining, we get, S > T > B ≥ K < G, G > K ≤ B > N
Conclusions:
I. G > N: False:( G > K ≤ B > N, relationship between G and N can’t be established)
II. S > K: True (S > T > B ≥ K, so, S > K)
Hence, option b.
Question 4: In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.
Statements:
R > P < T; N > R = Q; P > J ≤ X
Conclusions:
I. Q > X
II. T > X
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusions II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
E) Either conclusion I or II follows
Answer: D)
Solution:
Given statements:
R > P < T; N > R = Q; P > J ≤ X
On combining, we get, Q = R > P > J ≤ X and T > P > J ≤ X
Conclusions:
I. Q > X: False: (Q = R > P > J ≤ X, relationship between Q and X can’t be established)
II. T > X: False: (T > P > J ≤ X, relationship between T and X can’t be established)
Hence, option d.
Question 5: In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.
Statements:
E > Y < R > O = G > L ≥ T < H > A
Conclusions:
I. R > T
II. G > A
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusions II follows
C) Both the conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither the conclusion I nor II follows
E) Either the conclusion I or II follows
Answer: A)
Solution:
Given statement:
E > Y < R > O = G > L ≥ T < H > A
Conclusions
I. R > T, True (R > O = G > L ≥ T, so, R > T)
II. G > A, False (G > L ≥ T < H > A, the relationship between G and A can’t be established)
Hence, option a.
(Coding Decoding)
Directions(1-5): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
In a certain language,
“he attends the classes daily” is coded as “sb rb fb jb qb”
“the main subject test” is coded as “hb vb sb xb”
“assign test daily” is coded as “jb ob vb”
“he attends main conference” is coded as “qb fb zb hb”
Common solution:
From statement I and II, we conclude that ‘the’ is coded as ‘sb’.
From statement I and III, we conclude that ‘daily’ is coded as ‘jb’.
From statement I and IV, we conclude that either ‘he’ or ‘attends’ is coded as either ‘qb’ or ‘fb’.
From statement II and III, we conclude that ‘test’ is coded as ‘vb’.
From statement II and IV, we conclude that ‘main’ is coded as ‘hb’.
From statement I only, we conclude that ‘classes’ is coded as ‘rb’.
From statement II only, we conclude that ‘subject’ is coded as ‘xb’.
From statement III only, we conclude that ‘assign’ is coded as ‘ob’.
From statement IV only, we conclude that ‘conference’ is coded as ‘zb’.
The words are coded as given below:
| Words | he | attends | the | classes | daily | main | subject | test | assign | conference |
| Codes | fb/qb | qb/fb | sb | rb | jb | hb | xb | vb | ob | zb |
Question 1: what is the code for “classes”?
A) sb
B) rb
C) fb
D) qb
E) Cannot be determined
Answer: B)
Solution:
The code for “classes” is “rb”.
Hence, option b.
Question 2: What is the code for “attends”?
A) fb
B) qb
C) Either (a) or (b)
D) zb
E) cannot be determined
Answer: C)
Solution:
“attends” will be coded as either “fb” or “qb”.
Hence, option c.
Question 3: What is the code for “assign”?
A) ob
B) qb
C) vb
D) sb
E) Cannot be determined
Answer: A)
Solution:
“assign” will be coded as ‘ob’.
Hence, option a.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Free Mock Test
Question 4: What is the code for “subject”?
A) hb
B) vb
C) qb
D) xb
E) none of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
The code for “subject” is xb.
Hence, option d.
Question 5: Among the following, which word is coded as “zb”?
A) daily
B) he
C) the
D) conference
E) none of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
“conference” will be coded as zb.
Hence, option d.
(Alphanumeric Series)
Directions(1-5): Study the following arrangement of numbers and letters and answer the questions:
Q U 1 R D 9 Z Y 8 P 2 N 7 K S 3 S 5 A T 6
Question 1: What is the sum of all the digits written between Y to T?
A) 24
B) 23
C) 25
D) 26
E) 21
Answer: C)
Solution:
Given series:
Q U 1 R D 9 Z Y 8 P 2 N 7 K S 3 S 5 A T 6
Digits between Y and T (8+2+7+3+5) = 25
Hence, option c.
Question 2: Which of the following is the next set of elements in series?
QUR 9Z8 2NK ?
A) 3SA
B) 3A7
C) 3Y6
D) TA6
E) None of these
Answer: A)
Solution:
Given series:
Q U 1 R D 9 Z Y 8 P 2 N 7 K S 3 S 5 A T 6
So, according to the pattern next set will be
3SA.
Hence, option a.
Question 3: Which of the following element is 2nd to the right of 10th element from the right end of the series?
A) 7
B) K
C) S
D) 3
E) None of these
Answer: B)
Solution:
Given series:
Q U 1 R D 9 Z Y 8 P 2 N 7 K S 3 S 5 A T 6
The 2nd element to right of 10th element from the right end i.e. 8th from the right end i.e. K
Hence, option b.
Question 4: How many such digits are there in the series, each of which is immediately preceded as well as followed by consonant?
A) Four
B) Three
C) Five
D) One
E) None of these
Answer: C)
Solution:
Given series:
Q U 1 R D 9 Z Y 8 P 2 N 7 K S 3 S 5 A T 6
So, there are five such digits.
Hence, option c.
Question 5: If all the even digits are subtracted by 1 and 1 is added to all the odd digits then what is the sum of all the digits given in the series?
A) 41
B) 40
C) 48
D) 45
E) 43
Answer: E)
Solution:
Given series:
Q U 1 R D 9 Z Y 8 P 2 N 7 K S 3 S 5 A T 6
So, according to the given condition
2+10+7+1+8+4+6+5=43
Hence, option e.
(Direction Sense Test)
Directions(1-2): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
Point C is 9m south of point B, which is 7m west of point A. Point E is 5m north of point D, which is 4m east of point C. Point G is 8m south of point F, which is 7m west of point E. Point H is 6m west of point G.
Common Solution:
The figure is shown below:
Question 1: What is the shortest distance between point H and point A?
A) 24m
B) 25m
C) 20m
D) 18m
E) None of these
Answer: C)
Solution:
The shortest distance between point H and point A
= √[(12)2 + (16)2]m
= √400m
= 20m
Hence, option c.
Question 2: What is the direction of point C with respect to point F?
A) South
B) South west
C) North east
D) South east
E) None of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
Point C is south east of point F.
Hence, option d.
Directions(3-5): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Eight persons, A through H are sitting at some distance from each other. A is sitting 4m west to B, who is sitting in the middle of C and D. H is sitting 4m south to G, who is sitting 3m west to F, who is sitting 3m south to E, who is sitting 5m east to D. C is sitting 4m north of D.
Common Solution:
The final arrangement is as follows:
Question 3: If H moves 2m towards west, then what is the shortest distance between H and C?
A) 11m
B) 12m
C) 13m
D) 15m
E) None of these
Answer: A)
Solution:
The shortest distance between H and C after the movement is 11m.
Hence, option a.
Question 4: What is the direction of B with respect to G?
A) North
B) North east
C) South west
D) North west
E) None of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
B is sitting North West to G.
Hence, option d.
Question 5: What is the direction of F with respect to D?
A) South east
B) South
C) North East
D) North
E) None of these
Answer: A)
Solution:
F is in the south east of D.
Hence, option a.
(Blood Relation)
Directions(1-2): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
There are seven members, A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a family. There is no single parent in the family. G’s father’s only sister’s only daughter in law is F. A is the only brother-in-law of D, who is a male member. E is the only sister-in-law of B.
Common Solution:
G’s father’s only sister’s only daughter in law is F. A is the only brother-in-law of D. E is the only sister-in-law of B. Either A or D is the husband of B.
The final arrangement is as follows:
Question 1: ________ is the husband of B.
A) A
B) D
C) C
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
B’s husband is either D or A.
Hence, option d.
Question 2: If C is the son of B then how is B related to G?
A) Son
B) Daughter
C) Aunt
D) Niece
E) None of these
Answer: C)
Solution:
So, B must be aunt of G.
Hence, option c.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Free Mock Test
Directions(3-5): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
There are seven members among, A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a family. There is no single parent in the family.
F’s only brother’s mother’s only brother’s father is B. C is the only brother-in-law of D. Gender of G and A is same. D doesn’t have any siblings. G is not the mother of E. Gender of E and F is not the same.
Common Solution:
F’s only brother’s mother’s only brother’s father is B.
C is the only brother-in-law of D, so they are in 2nd generation.
Gender of G and A is same.
D doesn’t have any siblings.
G is not the mother of E, i.e. G is the grandmother of E.
Gender of E and F is not the same.
The final family tree diagram:
Question 3: How is F related to A?
A) Daughter
B) Nephew
C) Granddaughter
D) Son
E) None of these
Answer: A)
Solution:
F is the daughter of A.
Hence, option a.
Question 4: How is G related to C?
A) Brother
B) Sister
C) Wife
D) Mother
E) None of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
G is the mother of C.
Hence, option d.
Question 5: How is D related to B?
A) Son
B) Son in law
C) Grandson
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these
Answer: B)
Solution:
D is the son-in-law of B.
Hence, option b.
(Ranking)
Directions(1-3): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have different heights. T is taller than only V. P is taller than R and S but not the tallest. U is taller than Q, who is not shorter than P.
Common Solution:
Now, T is taller than only V. P is taller than R and S but not the tallest. U is taller than Q, who is not shorter than P. So, there will be only one possibility,
U > Q > P > R/S > S/R > T > V
Question 1: Who among the following is the tallest?
A) Q
B) P
C) U
D) S
E) None of these
Answer: C)
Solution:
U is the tallest.
Hence, option c.
Question 2: If the heights are in consecutive order and the average of height of R and T is the height of S then how many persons are taller than S?
A) Three
B) Four
C) One
D) Two
E) None of these
Answer: B)
Solution:
So, four persons are taller than S.
Hence, option b.
Question 3: How many persons are shorter than P?
A) Three
B) Five
C) Four
D) One
E) None of these
Answer: C)
Solution:
Four persons are shorter than P.
Hence, option c.
IBPS Clerk Prelims Free Mock Test
Directions(4-5): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F have different heights. E and A are shorter than B. Only F is shorter than E. B is not the tallest person. More than 2 persons are taller than C.
Common Solution:
As E and A are shorter than B. Only F is shorter than E. B is not the tallest person. More than 2 persons are taller than C, so
D > B > A > C > E > F
(Tallest) (Shortest)
Question 4: If height of B is 136cm and height of C is 123cm, what is the probable height of D?
A) 110cm
B) 130cm
C) 150cm
D) 134cm
E) None of these
Answer: C)
Solution:
Height of D is more than B and is the tallest, so D’s height can be 150cm.
Hence, option c.
Question 5: Who is the 3rd tallest person?
A) B
B) A
C) D
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these
Answer: B)
Solution:
A is the 3rd tallest person.
Hence, option b.
(Alphabets/Numbers)
Question 1: When the digits, which are odd in the number ‘87346352’ are increased by 1 and the remaining digits are decreased by 2, then what is the sum of 2nd digit from the right end and 3rd digit from the left end of the rearranged number?
A) 9
B) 8
C) 12
D) 10
E) None of these
Answer: D)
Solution:
Given: 87346352
After replacement, we get, 6 8 4 2 4 4 6 0
2nd digit from the right end is 6 and the 3rd digit from the left end is 4.
Sum = (6 + 4) = 10
Hence, option d.
Question 2: When the digits, which are odd in the number ‘96725726’ are decreased by 2 and the remaining digits are increased by 1, then how many prime digits are there in the rearranged number?
A) Six
B) Four
C) Seven
D) Five
E) None of these
Answer: E)
Solution:
Given: 96725726
After replacement, we get, 7 7 5 3 3 5 3 7
There are eight prime digits in the rearranged number.
Hence, option e.
Question 3: If in the word, ADVOCATE, 5th, 7th and 8th letters are replaced by their 2nd preceding letter as per Alphabetical series, then, then how many meaningful English words can be formed from 5th, 7th and 8th letters after the replacement?
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 4
E) None of the above
Answer: B)
Solution:
Given word: ADVOCATE
The 5th, 7th, and 8th letters are C, T and E.
After replacement, we get, A, R and C. So, two meaningful words are formed, i.e., ARC, CAR.
Hence, option b.
Question 4: If a meaningful English word is formed by all consonants of the word ‘TURMOIL’ then which of the following will be third letter of the word formed from the left end. If more than one such meaningful word is formed mark ‘Z’ as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark ‘X’ as your answer?
A) R
B) M
C) L
D) X
E) Z
Answer: D)
Solution:
Given word: ‘TURMOIL’
Letters are T, R, M, L.
So, no meaningful word is formed from these 4 letters.
Hence, option d.
Question 5: How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘FIGHTERJETS’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English Alphabetical series?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) None of the above
Answer: D)
Solution:
Given word: ‘FIGHTERJETS’
So, there are 4 such pairs i.e., GH, EI, RT and ST.
Hence, option d.
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