FI_Mint_Static_CA_130623 (1)
Sign Up on PracticeMock for Free Tests, General Awareness, Current Affairs, Exam Notifications and Updates

This segment aims to finetune your preparation by asking static questions based on the topics covered in Mint newspaper. It has been observed that even static questions in Phase II (Economic and Social Issues, and Finance) of RBI Grade B and both phases of NABARD Grade A are hugely influenced by the topics in the news. On that note, please attempt the quizzes and evaluate where you stand.

Below we will be providing a set of 5 questions and answers on a daily basis for the aspirants to keep up their exam preparation.

RBI Grade B Free Mock Test 2023

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 26, 2023

1.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Diabetes situation in India?
A. The National Family Health Survey of 2019-21 had found that 15.6% of men and 13.5% of women had high to very high random blood sugar levels or were on medication to control it.
B. Diabetes was found to be more prevalent in the northern states.
C. More than 10% of the Indian Population are estimated to be living with diabetes.
1) All A, B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Both B and C
4) Only A
5) Both A and C

Ans: 5
Solution:
The warning bells about India’s fast-growing diabetes crisis have been tolling for some time now. A recent health ministry-funded study by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has confirmed the worst. Over 100 million Indians are now estimated to be living with diabetes, constituting 11.4% of the population, and 136 million (15.3%) are prediabetic, with sugar levels higher than normal but not high enough to qualify as diabetes.
The prevalence is higher than previously estimated. The National Family Health Survey of 2019-21 had found that 15.6% of men and 13.5% of women had high to very high random blood sugar levels or were on medication to control it.
Diabetes was found to be more prevalent in the southern states—some of which top NITI Aayog’s health index rankings—and certain northern states. Experts attribute this to these states’ relative success with active screening programs for non-communicable diseases. Prediabetes is most common in some central and northern states, where the prevalence of diabetes is currently low. Herein lies the danger and a window of opportunity: An accelerated focus on the prediabetic group.

2.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the framework for Auditors?
A. Section 139 (6) of 2013 Act provides for appointment of First Auditor i.e., Board shall appoint such auditor within 30 days of registration of company.
B. However, in case of first auditor of Government Company, Section 139(7) requires Comptroller and Auditor General of India to appoint an auditor within 30 days.
C. An auditor appointed under this Act shall provide to the company only such other services as are approved by the Board of Directors or the audit committee.
1) Both A and B
2) All A, B and C
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C
5) None of the Above

Ans: 4
Solution:
Section 139 (6) of 2013 Act provides for appointment of First Auditor i.e. Board shall appoint such auditor within 30 days of registration of company. If no auditor is appointed then, the members through an EoGM shall appoint an auditor within 90 days.
However, in case of first auditor of Government Company, Section 139(7) requires Comptroller and Auditor General of India to appoint an auditor within 60 days.
An auditor appointed under this Act shall provide to the company only such other services as are approved by the Board of Directors or the audit committee but which shall not include any of the following services (whether such services are rendered directly or indirectly to the company or its holding company or subsidiary company, namely:
• accounting and bookkeeping services;
• internal audit;
• design and implementation of any financial information system;
• actuarial services;
• investment advisory services;
• investment banking services;
• rendering of outsourced financial services;
• management services; and
• any other kind of services as may be prescribed.
Provided that an auditor or audit firm who or which has been performing any non-audit services on or before the commencement of this Act shall comply with the provisions of this section before the closure of the first financial year after the date of such commencement.

3.) India has set a target to produce about (A) million tonnes of green hydrogen by 2030. Significant amount of fund has been provided both for the production of green hydrogen, its transportation, storage and for research and development.
Identify (A)!
1) 5
2) 8
3) 10
4) 15
5) 12

Ans: 1
Solution:
India has set a target to produce about five million tonnes of green hydrogen by 2030. Significant amount of fund has been provided both to produce green hydrogen, its transportation, storage and for research and development. I think the target should be achievable but a lot more work is required in that direction including in R&D. One key challenge is going to be supply chain because fuel cells (which generate electricity from hydrogen), storage cylinders and electrolyzers (the apparatus for hydrogen production) need a variety of exotic materials like nickel and yttrium, most which we have to import.

4.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Fund for Funds for Startups?
A. Capital to alternative investment funds (AIFs) in the range of 20-25% of their total fund size.
B. It is managed by the NaBFID.
C. It is Rs 10,000 crore fund.
1) Both A and B
2) Both A and C
3) Both B and C
4) Only B
5) Only C

Ans: 2
Solution:
Small Industries Development Bank of India (Sidbi), which manages the ₹10,000-crore Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS), is looking to disburse ₹2,000 crore more from the fund by March 2024, in what would be the final tranche of its capital allocation from the vehicle. In an interview, Sivasubramanian Ramann, chairman and managing director, Sidbi, said the state-owned lender is planning to raise further capital through a new FFS, amid an expected downturn in offshore capital flow.
Sibdi provides capital to alternative investment funds (AIFs) in the range of 20-25% of their total fund size. So, the smaller funds end up getting a higher percentage and the larger funds get a smaller percentage. We have invested as high as ₹175 crore in some funds.
These funds have gone on to raise further capital and invested more than four times the amount Sidbi invested in these AIFs. The FFS programme is a massive feel-good factor among Indian funds for Indian startups.

5.) Which of the following statement(s) IS/are correct SWAMIH Fund?
A. It is the AIF-1 type fund.
B. SBI Small Cap manages this fund.
C. It is to address concerns over stalled real estate projects, which pose risks to homebuyers as well as lenders.
1) Both B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) None of the above

Ans: 1
Solution:
The Centre is taking proactive measures to address concerns over stalled real estate projects, which pose risks to homebuyers as well as lenders. According to two people in the know, the government is holding regular meetings with bankers and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) officials on the matter.
Although the Centre’s Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) investment fund successfully revived several projects, government officials said further actions are necessary. Launched in 2019, SWAMIH seeks to facilitate the completion of distressed residential projects.
The SWAMIH Investment Fund I, managed by State Bank of India’s SBICAP Ventures, helped in the completion of 20,557 units over the last four years and seeks to handover another 81,000 homes in 130 projects across 40 tier 1 and 2 cities, once the approvals are in place, one of the officials said on condition of anonymity. The fund has concluded the entire cycle of evaluation, investment, construction, and successful redemption of 11 projects, the official added.

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 16, 2023

1.) Identify the correct statement(s) regarding non-performing Assets!
1) When Principle or interest payment or any other amount wholly or partly overdue for more than 30 days and upto 60 days it is called SMA-2.
2) NPA shall be based on the account being overdue for more than 60 days.
3) A loss asset is one where loss has been identified by the bank and the amount has been written off wholly.
4) A Substandard asset would be one, which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
5) Both 3 and 4

Ans: 4
Solution:
SMA Sub-categories Basis for classification – Principal or interest payment or any other amount wholly or partly overdue between
SMA-0 1-30 days
SMA-1 31-60 days
SMA-2 61-90 days
Categories of NPAs
Banks are required to classify non-performing assets further into the following three categories based on the period for which the asset has remained non performing and the realisability of the dues:
(i) Substandard Assets
(ii) Doubtful Assets
(iii) Loss Assets
Substandard Assets
With effect from March 31, 2005, a substandard asset would be one, which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months. Such an asset will have well defined credit weaknesses that jeopardise the liquidation of the debt and are characterised by the distinct possibility that the banks will sustain some loss, if deficiencies are not corrected.
Doubtful Assets
With effect from March 31, 2005, an asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months. A loan classified as doubtful has all the weaknesses inherent in assets that were classified as substandard, with the added characteristic that the weaknesses make collection or liquidation in full, – based on currently known facts, conditions and values – highly questionable and improbable.
Loss Assets
A loss asset is one where loss has been identified by the bank or internal or external auditors or the RBI inspection, but the amount has not been written off wholly. In other words, such an asset is considered uncollectible and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted although there may be some salvage or recovery value.

2.) e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying any consignment of goods of value exceeding (A) as mandated by the Government in terms of Section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act.
Identify (A) in the above context.
1) Rs 1 lakh
2) Rs 50,000
3) Rs 1,50,000
4) Rs 2,00,000
5) Rs 3,00,000

Ans: 2
Solution:
e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying any consignment of goods of value exceeding fifty thousand rupees as mandated by the Government in terms of Section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act read with Rule 138 of the rules framed thereunder. It is generated from the GST Common Portal for eWay bill system by the registered persons or transporters who cause movement of goods of consignment before commencement of such movement.

3.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding P-Notes?
A. They allow foreign funds to take indirect exposure to India by applying for a licence with Indian regulators.
B. In P-notes, the banks purchase the shares or derivative contracts on behalf of the clients.
C. In the last decade, the bulk of the P-note market has moved offshore amid regulatory crackdown in India.
1) Both B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Both A and C
4) All A, B and C
5) None of the Above

Ans: 1
Solution:
P-notes allow foreign funds to take indirect exposure to India without applying for a licence with Indian regulators. Typically, large international banks with foreign portfolio investor (FPI) licences are the biggest issuers of P-notes. In P-notes, the banks purchase the shares or derivative contracts on behalf of the clients. They hold these securities and issue a certificate, which is called a P-note of such holding, which is called a P-note, to the client.
“In the last decade, the bulk of the P-note market has moved offshore amid regulatory crackdown in India. But such instruments are vital for a country to attract a wider pool of foreign investors,” said the stock exchange official cited above. “A lot of discussions are now happening between the banks and regulators regarding P-note issuances,” the official said.

4.) The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) was constituted on 01st October,2018 by the Government of India under Section (A) of the Companies Act, 2013.
1) Section 112
2) Section 56
3) Section 132
4) Section 135
5) None of the above

Ans: 3
Solution:
The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) was constituted on 01st October,2018 by the Government of India under Sub Section (1) of section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Functions and Duties
As per Sub Section (2) of Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013, the duties of the NFRA are to:
Recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government;
Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards;
Oversee the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such standards and suggest measures for improvement in the quality of service;
Perform such other functions and duties as may be necessary or incidental to the aforesaid functions and duties.

5.) Recently, Priority Distribution Model has been seen in the news. Identify from the following statements why it was in news.
1) Financing of States under Finance Commission
2) A Model Framework for distributing State Grants
3) A PPP Model for Infrastructure Projects
4) Segregating investors under AIF
5) Bank’s credit framework to meet PSL Norms

Ans: 4
Solution:
In a priority distribution model, the AIF creates two classes of investors; senior investors hold superior rights, such as the distribution of proceeds until a hurdle rate is met, after which junior investors are paid. Similarly, in case of a loss, investors in the senior tranche take higher losses than the junior tranche investors.

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 13, 2023

1.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct regarding the Minimum Support Prices?
A. Marketing Season of Kharif Crops starts on 1st November.
B. For the Kharif season, planting which begins in June with the onset of the monsoon, the government announced an average hike of 7% year-on-year, for a basket of 16 crops which include cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and cotton.
C. CACP, which recommends MSP, is again a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
1) All A, B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Both B and C
4) Only A
5) All A, B and C

Ans: 5
Solution:
• Agriculture Crop Year: 1st July – 30th June
• Marketing Season of Kharif crops starts from 1st October.
• Marketing Season of Rabi crops starts from 1st April.
For the Kharif season, planting for which begins in June with the onset of the monsoon, the government announced an average hike of 7% year-on-year, for a basket of 14 crops which include cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and cotton.
CACP, which recommends MSP, is again not a statutory body and it is just an office attached to Ministry of Agriculture.

2.) Which of the following Statement(s) is/are correct?
A. SDG Goal 14: Life Below Water.
B. SDG Goal 6: Clean Water and Sanitation.
C. SDG Goal 13: Climate Action
D. SDG Goal 11: Sustainable Cities and Communities
1) Both A and B
2) Only A, B and C
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C
5) All A, B, C and D

Ans: 5
Solution:

3.) The RBI allowed banks to charge up to (A) per transaction at the ATM (Automated Teller Machine) above the monthly free transaction limit.
1) Rs 33
2) Rs 21
3) Rs 40
4) Rs 41
5) Rs 27

Ans: 2
Solution:
The RBI, in June last year, allowed banks to charge up to Rs 21 per transaction at the ATM (Automated Teller Machine) above the monthly free transaction limit.

4.) Identify the correct statement regarding the term ‘Dutch Disease’!
1) It is used to describe the financial risk arising due to connectedness of institutions.
2) It is the sudden exist of foreign investors
3) After some news, the country’s currency value increase and hurt exporters
4) It is just like Bane of Dwarfism, used to describe MSMEs lack of growth
5) None of the Above

Ans: 3
Solution:
Dutch disease is a shorthand way of describing the paradox which occurs when good news, such as the discovery of large oil reserves, harms a country’s broader economy. It may begin with a large influx of foreign cash to exploit a newfound resource. It decreases the price competitiveness of exports of the affected country’s manufactured goods.

5.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending?
A. The RE shall invoke DLG within a maximum overdue period of 120 days, unless made good by the borrower before that.
B. Small Finance Banks are not eligible under these guidelines.
C. RE shall ensure that total amount of DLG cover on any outstanding portfolio which is specified upfront shall not exceed five per cent of the amount of that loan portfolio.
RE = Regulated Entity
1) Both A and C
2) Both A and B
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) All A, B and C

Ans: 1
Solution:
RE shall ensure that total amount of DLG cover on any outstanding portfolio which is specified upfront shall not exceed five per cent of the amount of that loan portfolio. In case of implicit guarantee arrangements, the DLG Provider shall not bear performance risk of more than the equivalent amount of five per cent of the underlying loan portfolio.
These guidelines are applicable to DLG arrangements entered in ‘Digital Lending’ operations undertaken by following entities (hereinafter referred to as ‘Regulated Entities’):
All Commercial Banks (including Small Finance Banks), Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks, State Co-operative Banks, Central Co-operative Banks; and Non-Banking Financial Companies (including Housing Finance Companies).
The RE shall invoke DLG within a maximum overdue period of 120 days, unless made good by the borrower before that.

RBI Grade B Free Mock Test 2023

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 12, 2023

1.) Identify the correct statement regarding ‘Takeout Financing’!
1) It is financing method with option to change security as per the market rates
2) In this type of Financing, there is an option for borrower to exit by paying hefty fine.
3) It is when a new borrower takeover the position of earlier borrower.
4) It is when new lenders take over or refinance project loans.
5) None of the Above

Ans: 4
Solution:
The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID), India’s youngest state-backed infrastructure financier, plans to introduce takeout financing products to help finance projects and allow timely exits for commercial lenders.
Takeout financing helps extend loan repayment periods as new lenders take over or refinance project loans, facilitating the removal of the assets from the books of financing banks within a pre-fixed period to avoid asset-liability mismatches.
In an interview, NaBFID managing director Rajkiran Rai G. said the infrastructure lender typically gives 30-year loans and will help banks exit after funding for the initial 5-10 years. The institution is looking to sanction loans worth ₹4 trillion by March 2026 on a balance sheet of ₹2.5-3 trillion in the same period.

2.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Jal Jeevan Mission?
A. For the FY 2023-24, Rs 60,000 crores has been allocated to JJM.
B. It aims to provide all rural households with adequate quantity (50 litre per capita per day)
C. Envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in India.
1) Both A and B
2) All A, B and C
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C
5) None of the Above

Ans: 5
Solution:
For the FY 2023-24, Rs 70,000 crores has been allocated to JJM.
It aims to provide all rural households with adequate quantity (55 litre per capita per day)
Envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all rural households in India.

3.) India’s insurance regulator has directed insurers to create Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) IDs, the (A) unique identifiers to be issued to all citizens, for both new insurance seekers and existing policyholders.
Identify (A).
1) 10 Digit
2) 12 Digit
3) 14 Digit
4) 16 Digit
5) None of the Above

Ans: 3
Solution:
India’s insurance regulator has directed insurers to create Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) IDs, the 14-digit unique identifiers to be issued to all citizens, for both new insurance seekers and existing policyholders.
The unique ID enables citizens to authenticate, access, and manage their health records digitally and facilitates hospital and doctor appointments, helping patients avoid long queues for registration at healthcare facilities. The ID is part of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) being implemented by the National Health Authority (NHA). While NHA has created 402.6 million ABHA IDs so far, the target is to cover all Indians.

4.) Registrars of Companies (RoCs) across the country are taking disciplinary action against companies for not making mandatory disclosures after incorporating companies and for not holding a minimum of (A) meetings in a year, regulatory orders showed.
The Companies Act mandates that businesses have to file a declaration within (B) months of their incorporation, confirming that share subscribers have paid the value of shares. Since April, nine penalty orders have been issued against companies for alleged violations of this section of the law. Commencement of operations or borrowings cannot be made without making this disclosure and also filing a verification of its registered office.
Identify (A) and (B) respectively.
1) Six, Six
2) Five, Nine
3) Six, Nine
4) Four, Six
5) Six, twelve

Ans: 4
Solution:
Registrars of Companies (RoCs) across the country are taking disciplinary action against companies for not making mandatory disclosures after incorporating companies and for not holding a minimum of four board meetings in a year, regulatory orders showed.
The Act mandates that businesses have to file a declaration within six months of their incorporation, confirming that share subscribers have paid the value of shares. Since April, nine penalty orders have been issued against companies for alleged violations of this section of the law. Commencement of operations or borrowings cannot be made without making this disclosure and also filing a verification of its registered office.

5.) Recently, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) has relaunched Sensex and Bankex derivative contracts. Identify the correct options!
A. The lot size of futures and options has been reduced to 10 from 15 for Sensex.
B. The lot size of futures and options has been reduced to 15 from 20 for Bankex.
C. New expiry cycle for Sensex and Bankex: Monday to Friday.
1) Both B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) All A, B, and C

Ans: 5
Solution:
Recently, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) has relaunched Sensex and Bankex derivative contracts.
– The lot size of futures and options has been reduced to 10 from 15 for Sensex.
– The lot size of futures and options has been reduced to 15 from 20 for Bankex.
– New expiry cycle for Sensex and Bankex: Monday to Friday.

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 09, 2023

1.) Section (A) of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette. The first such MPC was constituted on September 29, 2016. The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year. The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is (B) members.
Identify (A) and (B) in the above context.
1) 45ZA, three
2) 45ZB, four
3) 45ZC, five
4) 45ZD, three
5) 45ZE, five

Ans: 2
Solution:
Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette. The first such MPC was constituted on September 29, 2016. The MPC determines the policy repo rate required to achieve the inflation target.
The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year. The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.
Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote.
Each Member of the Monetary Policy Committee writes a statement specifying the reasons for voting in favour of, or against the proposed resolution.

2.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding e-RUPI Vouchers?
A. Maximum limit of each e-RUPI shall not exceed INR 10,000 or as defined by regulator.
B. e-RUPI shall be permitted for cash out or cash back on redemption.
C. Upto 10 e-RUPI vouchers can be issued for one programme on single mobile number / per unique beneficiary.
1) Both A and C
2) Both A and B
3) Both B and C
4) Only B
5) All A, B and C

Ans: 1
Solution:
e-RUPI is a one-time use digital solution to facilitate cashless payment which is person & purpose specific solutions for various services like COVID Vaccine, donations, corporate gift vouchers, etc.
e-RUPI can be issued only by banks authorized by RBI to issue Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPI) and who are participating as Payment Service Providers (PSP) in the UPI ecosystem (referred hereunder as the “Issuer”).
Maximum limit of each e-RUPI shall not exceed INR 10,000 or as defined by regulator.
Upto 10 e-RUPI vouchers can be issued for one programme on single mobile number / per unique beneficiary; the requirement shall be configurable as per the Scheme requirements.
e-RUPI shall be permitted to be redeemed only for the purchase of goods and services from designated merchant bearing valid Merchant Category Code (MCC), as may be defined by the Issuer at the time of issuance of e-RUPI. e-RUPI shall not be permitted for cash out or cash back on redemption

3.) Which of the following is not a type of Content Theory of Motivation?
1) Alderfer ERG Theory
2) Mclleland’s Theory of needs
3) Vroom Expectancy
4) Theory X and Y
5) Maslow Hierarchy Theory

Ans: 3
Solution:
Content theories of motivation often describe a system of needs that motivate peoples’ actions. While process theories of motivation attempt to explain how and why our motivations affect our behaviours, content theories of motivation attempt to define what those motives or needs are.
Vroom Expectancy theory states that the intensity of a tendency to perform in a particular manner is dependent on the intensity of an expectation that the performance will be followed by a definite outcome and on the appeal of the outcome to the individual.

4.) The Companies Act, 2013 provides for CSR under section (A). Thus, it is mandatory for the companies covered under section 135 to comply with the CSR provisions in India. Companies are required to spend a minimum of (B)_ of their net profit over the preceding three years as CSR.
Identify (A) and (B) respectively.
1) 123, 3%
2) 135, 2%
3) 133, 3%
4) 121, 2%
5) None of the above

Ans: 2
Solution:
The Companies Act, 2013 provides for CSR under section 135. Thus, it is mandatory for the companies covered under section 135 to comply with the CSR provisions in India. Companies are required to spend a minimum of 2% of their net profit over the preceding three years as CSR.

5.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Bharatmala project?
A. The Bharatmala Pariyojana envisages development of about 26,000 km length of Economic Corridors.
B. 28 cities have been identified for Ring Roads.
C. 35 locations have been identified for development of Multimodal Logistics Parks.
1) Both B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) All A, B and C

Ans: 5
Solution:
The Ministry has taken up detailed review of NHs network with a view to develop the road connectivity to Border areas, development of Coastal roads including road connectivity for Non-Major ports, improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors, development of Economic Corridors, Inter Corridors and Feeder Routes along with integration with Sagarmala, etc., under Bharatmala Pariyojana. The Bharatmala Pariyojana envisages development of about 26,000 km length of Economic Corridors, which along with Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) and North-South and East-West (NS-EW) Corridors are expected to carry majority of the Freight Traffic on roads. Further, about 8,000 km of Inter Corridors and about 7,500 km of Feeder Routes have been identified for improving effectiveness of Economic Corridors, GQ and NS-EW Corridors. The programme envisages development of Ring Roads / bypasses and elevated corridors to decongest the traffic passing through cities and enhance logistic efficiency; 28 cities have been identified for Ring Roads; 125 choke points and 66 congestion points have been identified for their improvements. Further, in order to reduce congestion on proposed Corridors, enhance logistic efficiency and reduce logistics costs of freight movements, 35 locations have been identified for development of Multimodal Logistics Parks.

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 08, 2023

1.) The Union Cabinet approved the (A)_ revival package for BSNL with a total outlay of Rs (B). It includes the allotment of 4G/5G spectrum for BSNL through equity infusion.
Identify (A) and (B) respectively.
1) Second, 99,047 crores
2) Third, 89,047 crores
3) Second, 91,047 crores
4) Third, 92,047 crores
5) None of the above

Ans: 2
Solution:
Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, on Wednesday approved the third revival package for BSNL with a total outlay of Rs 89,047 crore. It includes the allotment of 4G/5G spectrum for BSNL through equity infusion. The Cabinet allotted four spectrum bands – 700 MHz worth Rs 46,338.60 crore, 3,300 MHz for Rs 26,184.20 crore, 26 GHz for Rs 6,564.93 crore, and 2,500 MHz worth Rs 9,428.20 crore.

2.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding FDI in Banking?
A. In Private Sector Banking, 74% of FDI is allowed in automatic route.
B. At all times, 26% of the paid-up capital must be held by the resident except wholly owned subsidiary of a Foreign Bank.
C. Public Sector bank’s FDI Cap is 20%.
1) Both A and B
2) All A, B and C
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C
5) None of the Above

Ans: 3
Solution:

3.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding PM KUSUM?
A. Under component A, the government plans to set up 10,000 MW of decentralized ground mounted grid connected solar power plants on farmlands.
B. Component B: Installation of 20 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
C. Component C: Solarisation of 15 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps.
1) Only A
2) Both A and B
3) Both B and C
4) All A, B, and C
5) Both A and C

Ans: 4
Solution:
PM KUSUM Scheme consists of three components:
Component A: 10,000 MW of solar capacity through the installation of small Solar Power Plants of individual plants of capacity upto 2 MW.
Component B: Installation of 20 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
Component C: Solarisation of 15 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps.

4.) OECD’s forecast is lower than RBI’s forecast of a 6.5% expansion this fiscal. OECD’s forecast is (A). While the International Monetary Fund had in April forecast a 5.9% growth for India this year, the World Bank on Tuesday said India is expected to grow at (B) in the year ending March 2024.
Identify (A) and (B) respectively.
1) 6%, 6.3%
2) 6.2%, 6.3%
3) 6.4%, 6.2%
4) 6.1%, 6.4%
5) 6.2%, 6.4%

Ans: 1
Solution:
OECD, however, has said moderating inflation and monetary policy easing in the second half of current fiscal will help discretionary household spending to regain momentum, helping the economy to accelerate to 7% growth in FY25, aided by improved global conditions.
OECD’s forecast is lower than RBI’s forecast of a 6.5% expansion this fiscal. While the International Monetary Fund had in April forecast a 5.9% growth for India this year, the World Bank on Tuesday said India is expected to grow at 6.3% in the year ending March 2024.
“Weak global demand and the effect of monetary policy tightening to manage inflationary pressures will constrain the economy in FY 2023-24, limiting real GDP growth to 6%,” the OECD said.

5.) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding TReDS platform?
A. Insurance companies are also permitted as a fourth participant on the platform.
B. Premium for insurance shall be levied on the MSME seller.
C. The RBI issued guidelines on TReDS in December 2014 with the objective of facilitating the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs.
1) Both B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) All A, B and C

Ans: 4
Solution:
The Reserve Bank on Wednesday expanded the trade receivables discounting system (TReDS) by permitting insurance companies to function as participants, a move aimed at improving the cash flows of MSMEs.
The RBI issued guidelines on TReDS in December 2014 with the objective of facilitating the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs. Subsequently, three entities started operating TReDS platforms. These entities process about ₹60,000 crore worth of transactions annually.
Based on the experience gained, the RBI expanded the scope of the platform. “Apart from MSME sellers, buyers and financiers, insurance companies are permitted to participate as “fourth participant” in TReDS,” it said in a circular.
Financiers place their bids on the TReDS platforms keeping in view the credit rating of buyers. They are generally not inclined to bid for payables of low-rated buyers. To overcome this, an insurance facility is being permitted for TReDS transactions, which would aid financiers to hedge default risks, the RBI added.
In their business or operational rules, the TReDS platform operators may specify the stage at which insurance facility can be availed, the central bank added.
“Premium for insurance shall not be levied on the MSME seller,” it said.
The RBI has also expanded the pool of financiers. TReDS transactions fall under the ambit of “factoring business”, and banks, NBFC-Factors and other financial institutions can presently participate as financiers in TReDS. The Factoring Regulation Act, 2011 (FRA) allows certain other entities/institutions to undertake factoring transactions.

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 07, 2023

1.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the India’s goods exports data?
A. In exports, out of the top 10 categories, electronic goods had the highest growth rate of around 50% in 2022-23.
B. Exports of goods to China declined in 2022-23.
C. The Netherlands has emerged as India’s third largest exports destination after the US and UAE during 2022-23.
1) All A, B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Both B and C
4) Only A
5) Only B

Ans: 1
Solution:
Besides Oil, another bright spot was electronic goods, whose exports surged 50% in 2022-23 to $23.5 billion.
CHINA—NUMBER three in India’s exports in 2021-22, with a 5% share—was a major reason for the lacklustre performance of Indian exports in 2022-23. Recurring lockdowns in China in 2022-23 meant that India’s overall exports to it fell by 28% compared with 2021-22, and exports other than of jewellery and petroleum products slumped 30%. Major categories of exports to China that suffered in 2022-23 include organic chemicals (down 36% to $1.5 billion), seafood (down 20% to $1.3 billion) and electrical machinery (down 18% to $679 million).
The US and the UAE retained their first and second positions as India’s top export destinations.

2.) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding India-IPEF framework?
A. IPEF was launched jointly by the USA and other partner countries of the Indo-Pacific region in 2021 at Tokyo.
B. The framework is structured around four pillars. Of Which Pillar-II is for Trade.
C. India had joined Pillars III to IV of IPEF while it has an observer status in Pillar-I and Pillar-II.
1) Both A and B
2) All A, B and C
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C
5) Only A

Ans: 2
Solution:
The second Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) Ministerial Meeting was held in Detroit yesterday hosted by the US. Union Minister for Commerce and Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, and Textiles, Shri Piyush Goyal virtually participated in the Ministerial meeting.
IPEF was launched jointly by the USA and other partner countries of the Indo-Pacific region on May 23, 2022 at Tokyo. IPEF has 14 partner countries including Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam & USA. It seeks to strengthen economic engagement among partner countries with the goal of advancing growth, peace and prosperity in the region.
The framework is structured around four pillars relating to Trade (Pillar I); Supply Chains (Pillar II); Clean Economy (Pillar III); and Fair Economy (Pillar IV). India had joined Pillars II to IV of IPEF while it has an observer status in Pillar-I.

3.) The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation implements the Price Support Scheme for procurement of oil seeds, pulses and cotton, through (A) which is the Central nodal agency, at the MSP declared by the government.
Identify A.
1) FCI
2) SFAC
3) State Agencies
4) NAFED
5) Both 1 and 3

Ans: 4
Solution:
The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation implements the PSS for procurement of oil seeds, pulses and cotton, through NAFED which is the Central nodal agency, at the MSP declared by the government. NAFED undertakes procurement as and when prices fall below the MSP.

4.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Bank NIFTY Index?
A. BANKNIFTY futures contracts have a maximum of 3-month trading cycle.
B. BANKNIFTY futures contracts expire on the last Thursday of the expiry month.
C. The value of the futures contracts on BANKNIFTY may not be less than Rs. 5 lakhs at the time of introduction.
1) All A, B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Both A and C
4) Both B and C
5) None of the above

Ans: 3
Solution:
BANKNIFTY futures contracts have a maximum of 3-month trading cycle – the near month (one), the next month (two) and the far month (three). A new contract is introduced on the trading day following the expiry of the near month contract.
Note: Effective from July 07, 2023, the expiry day of BANKNIFTY Futures and Options will be revised from existing THURSDAY to FRIDAY (Circular reference : 56967)
The value of the futures contracts on BANKNIFTY may not be less than Rs. 5 lakhs at the time of introduction. The permitted lot size for futures contracts & options contracts shall be the same for a given underlying or such lot size as may be stipulated by the Exchange from time to time.

5.) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Classification of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises?
A. The Classification of MSMEs is based on the Investment and Turnover. It is different for both Manufacturing and Services.
B. Micro Enterprise has Investment < 1 crores and Turnover < 5 crores.
C. Medium Enterprise has Investment of < 20 crores and a Turnover of < 100 crores.
1) Both B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) None of the above

Ans: 5
Solution:
All are incorrect.
CLASSIFICATION MICRO SMALL MEDIUMM
Manufacturing Enterprises and Enterprises rendering Services Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment:
Not more than Rs.1 crore and Annual Turnover ; not more than Rs. 5 crore Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment:
Not more than Rs.10 crore and Annual Turnover ; not more than Rs. 50 crore Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment:
Not more than Rs.50 crore and Annual Turnover ; not more than Rs. 250 crore

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 06, 2023

1.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)?
A. For 11 states and 1 UT.
B. For 5 years commencing from 2023-23.
C. Gujarat has the second highest share in Mangrove Cover.
1) All A, B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Both B and C
4) Only A
5) Only B

Ans: 3
Solution:
Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)) envisage to comprehensively explore the possible area for the development of Mangroves covering approximately 540 Sq. Kms. spreading across 11 States and 2 Union Territories during five years commencing FY 2023-24 onwards. The sharing of best practices on plantation techniques, conservation measures, management practices and resources mobilization through Public Private Partnership are objectives of the MISHTI scheme.
West Bengal has 42.45% of India’s mangrove cover, followed by Gujarat 23.66% and A&N Islands 12.39%.

2.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the National Bank for Financing and Development (NABFID)?
A. It is a statutory organization setup in 2021.
B. Initially, the central government will own 100% shares of the institution which may subsequently be reduced up to 16%.
C. No investigation can be initiated against employees of NBFID without the prior sanction of: (i) the central government in case of the chairperson or other directors, and (ii) the managing director in case of other employees.
1) Both A and B
2) All A, B and C
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C
5) Only A

Ans: 4
Solution:
The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Bill, 2021 was introduced in Lok Sabha on March 22, 2021.
NBFID is set up as a corporate body with authorised share capital of one lakh crore rupees. Shares of NBFID may be held by: (i) central government, (ii) multilateral institutions, (iii) sovereign wealth funds, (iv) pension funds, (v) insurers, (vi) financial institutions, (vii) banks, and (viii) any other institution prescribed by the central government. Initially, the central government will own 100% shares of the institution which may subsequently be reduced up to 26%.
No investigation can be initiated against employees of NBFID without the prior sanction of: (i) the central government in case of the chairperson or other directors, and (ii) the managing director in case of other employees.

3.) The ‘Committee for Review of Customer Service Standards in RBI Regulated Entities’ was constituted in May 2022 and was helmed by (A)_, a former deputy governor of the RBI.
Identify (A) in the above context.
1) Viral V Acharya
2) BP Kanungo
3) S.S Mundra
4) Anand Sinha
5) N.S Viswanathan

Ans: 2
Solution:
The ‘Committee for Review of Customer Service Standards in RBI Regulated Entities’ was constituted in May 2022 and was helmed by BP Kanungo, a former deputy governor of the RBI.

4.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Household Inflation expectations survey by RBI?
A. It records only Qualitative response for current, 3 months ahead and 11 years ahead.
B. It is conducted by the third-party agency in 19 major cities.
C. It is a bi-monthly exercise.
1) All A, B and C
2) Both A and C
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and B
5) None of the above

Ans: 3
Solution:
The survey seeks qualitative responses from households on price changes (general prices as well as prices of specific product groups) in the 3 months ahead as well as in the 11-year ahead period and quantitative responses on current, 3 months ahead, and 1-year ahead inflation rates.
Reserve Bank releases its bi-monthly inflation expectations survey of households (IESH). The survey is in 19 major cities.

5.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding New Development Bank?
A. Established in 2015, an initiative of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization.
B. NDB has an initial authorized capital of USD 100 billion.
C. Membership of the Bank is open to members of the United Nations.
1) Both B and C
2) Both A and B
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) None of the above

Ans: 1
Solution:
Established in 2015 by BRICS countries, the New Development Bank is a multilateral development bank aimed at mobilizing resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other EMDCs.
NDB has an initial authorized capital of USD 100 billion, which is divided into one million shares that have a par value of one hundred thousand dollars each.
Membership of the Bank is open to members of the United Nations.

Mint StatiCA MCQs – June 05, 2023

1.) Led by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and held annually on (A) since (B), World Environment Day is the largest global platform for environmental public outreach and is celebrated by millions of people across the world. In 2023, it is hosted by Côte D’Ivoire.
Identify (A) and (B) respectively.
1) 5th June, 1971
2) 4th June, 1972
3) 5th June, 1971
4) 4th June, 1971
5) 5th June, 1973

Ans: 5
Solution:
Led by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and held annually on 5 June 1973, World Environment Day is the largest global platform for environmental public outreach and is celebrated by millions of people across the world. In 2023, it is hosted by Côte D’Ivoire.

2.) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding National Food Security Act?
A. 75% of Rural and 50% of Urban population is entitled to receive highly subsidised foodgrains under two categories of beneficiaries – Antodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households and Priority Households (PHH).
B. Eldest member of either gender of the beneficiary household (18 years or above) is considered as ‘Head of Family’ for the purpose of issuing ration cards.
C. Highly subsidised Central Issue Prices of Re.1, Rs.3 and Rs.5 for Coarse-grains, Wheat and Rice respectively.
1) Both A and B
2) All A, B and C
3) Only C
4) Both A and C
5) Only A

Ans: 5
Solution:
Salient Features of NFSA are,
Public Distribution System (PDS) is now governed by provisions of the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA).
75% of Rural and 50% of Urban population is entitled to receive highly subsidised foodgrains under two categories of beneficiaries – Antodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households and Priority Households (PHH).
The Act entitles 35 kg of foodgrains per AAY Household per month, whereas 5 Kg of foodgrain per PHH Person per month.
Identification of beneficiaries/households under NFSA is done by respective State/UT Government, which is required to frame its own criteria.
Highly subsidised Central Issue Prices of Re.1, Rs.2 and Rs.3 for Coarse-grains, Wheat and Rice respectively, kept unchanged till June 2019.
Eldest woman of the beneficiary household (18 years or above) is considered as ‘Head of Family’ for the purpose of issuing ration cards.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the growth story of India in FY 2022-23?
A. The growth rate of private final consumption expenditure was more than the gross fixed capital expenditure.
B. The Government’s recent estimate had pegged the GDP growth for 2022-23 at 7.2%.
C. Year-on-year Growth rate in tax-to-GDP ratio was more in FY 2022-23 than the FY 2021-22.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) Both B and C
5) All A, B and C

Ans: 2
Solution:
Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) number, a key proxy for consumption patterns, paints a worrying picture, as it grew a meagre 2.8% in Q4FY23. It was higher than 2.2% in Q3, but pales against the gross fixed capital formation (GFCF), a proxy for investments. With 8% and 8.9% growth in Q3 and Q4, respectively, GFCF contributed to India’s growth, highlighting the government’s efforts to push capital expenditure.
The previous year ended on a satisfactory note for the central government, with its finances broadly in line with its revised estimates. However, while the tax collections were also in line with expectations, the tax-to-GDP ratio took a dip during the year.
The GDP growth rate for the year FY 2022-23 was 7.2%.

4.) What are the features of the recently approved Production Linked Incentive scheme for IT Hardware 2.0?
A. Budget outlay is Rs 17,000 crores.
B. The tenure of the scheme is 6 years.
C. Expected incremental production is Rs. 3.35 Lakh crore.
1) Only A
2) Both A and B
3) Only B
4) All A, B and C
5) Both B and C

Ans: 4
Solution:
Salient features:
• PLI Scheme 2.0 for IT hardware covers laptops, tablets, all-in-one PCs, servers and ultra small form factor devices.
• The budgetary outlay of the scheme is Rs. 17,000 crores.
• The tenure of this scheme is 6 years.
• Expected incremental production is Rs. 3.35 Lakh crore.
• Expected incremental investment is Rs. 2,430 crores.
• Expected incremental direct employment is 75,000.

5.) Indian Railways has recorded the best performance in its recorded history in terms of the output from the Freight Business in the Financial year 2022-23. As per the preliminary data IR has achieved an originating Freight loading of (A) MT i.e an incremental loading of 94 MT over the previous best achieved in FY 2021-22 with a growth of around (B).
Identify (A) and (B) respectively.
1) 1512, 7%
2) 1412, 7%
3) 1412, 8%
4) 1512, 8%
5) None of the above

Ans: 1
Solution:
Indian Railways has recorded the best ever performance in its recorded history in terms of the output from the Freight Business in the Financial year 2022-23. As per the preliminary data IR has achieved an originating Freight loading of 1512 MT i.e an incremental loading of 94 MT over the previous best of 1418 MT achieved in FY 2021-22 with a growth of ~7%.

    Free Mock Tests for the Upcoming Exams



By Nikhil

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *