IBPS RRB PO

40 Important Reasoning Questions & Solutions PDF for RRB PO Prelims

IBPS RRB PO 2024 notification is not released yet, but as per the IBPS calendar 2 024 the RRB PO exam is scheduled for the month of August. Many of you must be wondering why to start the exam preparation from now as we have ample time in the exam. I would like to update you that this is one major difference between the ones you crack the exam and the ones who are not able to do so. It is always better to prepare beforehand rather than waiting for the last moment.  For those who are planning to start RRB PO exam preparation or those who have already started, this article is for you as in this we will be discussing about 40 Important Reasoning Questions & Solutions PDF for RRB PO Prelims 2024. Reasoning is one section which many people have issues with. Firstly, make yourself familiar with the concepts and then the best way to master the section is by practicing questions.

RRB PO Prelims 2024 Exam Pattern

IBPS RRB PO Officer Scale-I Prelims Exam Pattern 2024
S. No.SectionsNo. of QuestionsMarksDuration
1.Reasoning404045 Minutes
2.Numerical Ability4040
Total8080

Important Reasoning Topics for RRB PO Prelims 2024 Exam

Mentioned below are few important topics that an aspirant must know to start their exam preparation:

  • Puzzles – Seating Arrangement: Circular/Direction-based/MISC
  • Odd one Out
  • Blood Relation
  • Number Series
  • Coding-Decoding
  • Syllogism
  • Analogy
  • Ranking and Time
  • Direction Sense
  • Alphabet Test
  • Causes and Effects
  • Figure Series
  • Assertion and Reason
  • Statement and Assumption
  • Word Formation
  • Statement and Arguments
  • Statement and Conclusion

The first and the foremost step to start your RRB PO prelims exam preparation is to get conceptual clarity on these topics and then comes the most important part of practicing new types of reasoning questions. Below, we are mentioning 40 Important Reasoning Questions & Solutions PDF for RRB PO Prelims 2024

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

40 Important Reasoning Questions & Solutions PDF for RRB PO Prelims

Question 1: In each of these questions, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.

Statements: P ≥ R = C < A; R > O ≥ B; T < P < V.

Conclusions: 

I. V > C

II. O ≤ T

A) Only conclusion I is true

B) Only conclusion II is true

C) Either conclusion I or II is true

D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E) Both conclusions I and II are true

Question 2: In this question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.

Statements: W ≤ A > X < M; Y < R ≥ A < Z

Conclusions: 

I. R ≥ W 


II. Y < X

A) Only conclusion I is true

B) Only conclusion II is true

C) Either conclusion I or II is true

D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E) Both conclusions I and II are true

Question 3: In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few munch is kitkat

All kitkat is perk

Some perk is éclair

Conclusions:

I. Some munch is not perk

II. All éclair can be kitkat

A) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

B) Only conclusion II follows

C) Only conclusion I follows

D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E) None of the above

Question 4: In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only unit is digit

Some number is unit

Mostly number is alphabet

Conclusions:

I. All digit can be number

II. Some alphabet can be digit

A) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

B) Only conclusion II follows

C) Only conclusion I follows

D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E) None of the above

Question 5: In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.

Statements: P > B ≥ C ≤ O; D > C > A; G < K ≤ A

Conclusions:

I. D < P

II. O = K

A) Only conclusion I is true

B) Only conclusion II is true

C) Either conclusion I or II is true

D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E) Both conclusions I and II are true

Question 6: If we add one to all the even digits and subtract one from all the odd digit of the number 7634528952 then what will be the product of the 2nd digit from the left end and the 6th digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

A) 35

B) 28

C) 21

D) 63

E) None of the above

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are 11 boxes (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z) kept one above the other in such a way that bottommost box is numbered 1, box above it is 2 and so on.

There are three boxes kept between box P and box Y, and both of them are even numbered box. Box P is not below box 7. There are two boxes between box P and box Q.There is at most one box between box Q and box S, which is at a perfect square numbered position. Box S is adjacent to box U. Box R is five boxes below box U. Box T is three boxes below box X, which is adjacent to box R. Box V is immediately above Z.

Question 7: Which box is placed at the bottommost position?

A) T

B) V

C) Z

D) S

E) None of the above

Question 8: How many boxes are placed above box U?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

E) None of the above

Question 9: Which box is placed immediately above box W?

A) R

B) Q

C) U

D) P

E) None of the above

Question 10: How many boxes are placed between box U and box Y?

A) One

B) Three

C) Five

D) Seven

E) None of the above

Question 11: Which box is placed at the topmost position?

A) Q

B) U

C) W

D) V

E) None of the above

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Certain number of persons sit in a row facing north direction. Number of persons sitting in a row is a prime number less than 25. No seat is vacant.

C sits exactly between A and E. Only five persons sit between G and H. E sits immediate right of P. A sits 6th to the left of F. F sits 2nd to the right of G. B sits at the extreme left end. Number of persons between B and A is 2 less than the number of persons between C and E. A is 7th person from the left end. H sits immediate left of X, who is exactly between P and W.

Question 12: How many persons are sitting in a given row?

A) 17

B) 19

C) 23

D) 21

E) Cannot be determined

Question 13: What is the position of X with respect to W?

A) 3rd to the left

B) 4th to the right

C) 3rd to the right

D) 4th to the left

E) Cannot be determined

Question 14: How many people sits between G and X?

A) 7

B) 5

C) 4

D) 6

E) None of the above

Question 15: What is the position of P with respect to A?

A) 15th to the right

B) 15th to the left

C) 14th to the right

D) 14th to the left

E) None of the above

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

Question 16: If D is sitting 2nd to the left of X and R is sitting 2nd to the right of A, then which of the following statement is true?

A) Only seven persons sit between A and D

B) D sits 3rd to the right of W

C) Only six persons sit between R and D

D) Only three persons sit between R and W

E) Only four persons sits between D and P.

Question 17: How many pairs of letters are there in the word “QUADILATERAL” which has as many letters between them (both forward and backward) in the word as in the English alphabetical series?

A) Two

B) Five

C) Four

D) Three

E) More than Five

Question 18: If it is possible to make a meaningful English word from 3rd, 8th and 12th letter of the word “ENCOURAGEMENT” from the left end, then what will be the 2nd letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such words can be formed, then mark the answer ‘X’ and if more than one word can be formed then mark the answer as ‘Y’.

A) O

B) N

C) R

D) X

E) Y

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In a certain language,

I. “Nature is my medicine” is coded as “la, na, ma, pa”

II. “My medicine are lost” is coded as “na, ra, pa, sa”

III. “Beautiful nature is lost” is coded as “la, ta, ma, sa”,

IV. “Pure nature is beautiful” is coded as “wa, ma, la, ta”

Question 19: What is the code for the word “lost”?

A) na

B) ra

C) pa

D) sa

E) None of the above

Question 20: Which of the following word is coded as “ta”?

A) beautiful

B) nature

C) is

D) lost

E) None of the above

Question 21: How is “nature” coded in the given coded language?

A) ma

B) la

C) na

D) Either (a) or (b)

E) None of the above

Question 22: What is the code for the word “medicine”?

A) pa

B) na

C) la

D) Either “pa” or “na”

E) None of the above

Question 23: Which of the following word is coded as “wa”?

A) pure

B) nature

C) is

D) beautiful

E) None of the above

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below:

There are two types of flats i.e., A and B, on each floor of a four-floor building. The bottommost floor is numbered as 1 and the topmost floor is numbered as 4. Flat A is in west of Flat B. Eight persons (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W) live in these flats such that one person lives in each flat.All flats are of the same dimensions.

Note: If it is given that ‘N’ lives adjacent to ‘M’ then both persons live on the same floor unless stated otherwise. If it is given that ‘N’ lives one/two floors above/below ‘M’ then both persons live in the same type of flat unless stated otherwise.

S lives in a prime number floor. P lives adjacent to S. T lives one floor below P. T doesn’t live in 1st floor. V lives at least two floors above W in the same type of flat.V doesn’t live in Flat B.W doesn’t live adjacent to T.R lives two floors above Q but not in the same type of flat.

Question 24: P lives above _____ (in the same type of flat).

A) W

B) U

C) Q

D) R

E) none of the above

Question 25: Which of the following statement is definitely true?

A) V lives three floors above T.

B) P lives in Flat A.

C) Q lives on 3rd floor.

D) T lives adjacent to Q.

E) U lives in Flat B of 4th floor.

Question 26: ____ lives in flat A on ____ floor.

A) R, 4th

B) S, 1st

C) Q, 2nd

D) W, 3rd

E) none of the above

Question 27: What is the floor number and flat type of U?

A) 4-B

B) 1-B

C) 2-B

D) 3-A

E) None of the above.

Question 28: Find the odd one out.

A) S

B) P

C) Q

D) U

E) T

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below:

There are eight members namely, A, B, C, D, M, N, O and P, in the family which consists of three generations. No single person in the family is a parent.

A is mother of P, who is sister of D. Grandfather of P is married to M. O is son in law of M. O is father of D, who is brother-in-law of N. M has a sister, who is not B.

Question 29: How is D related to B?

A) Granddaughter

B) Grandfather

C) Grandson

D) Grandmother

E) None of the above

Question 30: ____ is father-in-law of ____.

A) M, B

B) B, A

C) C, D

D) O, N

E) None of the above

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Seven persons (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) sit equidistant from each other around a circular table, such that some of them face away from the centre while some of them face towards the centre of the table. Not more than two adjacent persons face in the same direction.

F sits 2nd to the left of A. Two persons sit between F and C, who doesn’t sit adjacent to A. D sits 2nd to the right of B, who doesn’t sit adjacent to G. E sits immediate right of C. Both E and C face opposite direction to that of A. D faces towards the centre. Immediate neighbours of D face opposite direction to that of E.

Question 31: ___ sits 4th to the right of A.

A) B

B) D

C) G

D) C

E) None of the above

Question 32: How many persons face towards the centre?

A) Four

B) More than four

C) Three

D) Either (a) or (c)

E) None of the above

Question 33: Who sits 2nd to the right of D?

A) E

B) B

C) A

D) C

E) G

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

Question 34: Find the odd one out.

A) B

B) D

C) C

D) E

E) F

Question 35: ___ sits immediate left of B, who faces ___.

A) A, towards the centre

B) F, towards the centre

C) A, away from the centre

D) F, away from the centre

E) None of the above.

Directions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

Seven persons, Ram, Raj, Jill, Jim, Sam, Tim and Tom, have seven different designations, A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6 and A7, but not necessarily in the same order. The designations are in the decreasing order of the hierarchy, such that A1 is the senior most designation and A7 is the junior most designation. Each of them is from seven different cities among- Agra, Kochi, Surat, Pune, Thane, Patna and Delhi.

Ram, who is A5, is from Agra. Jill is two designations senior to Ram. Person, who is A1, is from Patna. Jim is one designation senior to the one, who is from Pune. Jim is not A1. Sam is not A2. Sam is two designations senior to Tim. Raj is from Kochi. Neither Jim nor Tim is from Delhi.

Question 36: ____ people are junior to Sam.

A) None

B) One

C) Three

D) Five

E) Six

Question 37: How many designations lie between the designation of Tim and designation of the person, who is from Pune?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

E) Five

Question 38: Which of the following statement is/are definitely true?

A) Jim is not from Surat

B) The one, who is from Thane, is A6

C) Sam is one designation junior to Jill

D) Ram is two designations senior to Raj.

E) More than one statement is true.

Question 39: ____, who is from ____, is three designations junior to Jim.

A) Ram, Agra

B) Jill, Pune

C) Time, Thane

D) Raj, Kochi

E) None of the above

Question 40: Sam, who is from ___, is ___.

A) Pune, A3

B) Delhi, A4

C) Patna, A1

D) Delhi, A6

E) None of the above

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

प्रश्न 1: निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में, कुछ तत्वों के बीच के रिश्ते को दर्शाया गया है|इन कथन के बाद दो निष्कर्ष दिए गए हैं|कथन को पढ़ें और सवालों के उत्तर दें|

कथन:P ≥ R = C < A; R > O ≥ B; T < P < V.

निष्कर्ष: 

I. V > C

II. O ≤ T

A) केवल निष्कर्ष I सत्य है

B) केवल निष्कर्ष II सत्य है

C) या तो निष्कर्ष I या II सत्य है

D) ना ही निष्कर्ष I ना ही II सत्य है

E) दोनों निष्कर्ष I और II सत्य है

प्रश्न 2: इस प्रश्न में, कुछ तत्वों के बीच संबंधों को बयानों में दिखाया गया है। इन बयानों के बाद दो निष्कर्ष निकाले गए हैं। स्टेटमेंट पढ़ें और जवाब दें।

कथन: W ≤ A > X < M; Y < R ≥ A < Z

निष्कर्ष : 

I. R ≥ W 


II. Y < X

A) केवल निष्कर्ष I सत्य है |

B) केवल निष्कर्ष II सत्य है |

C) या तो निष्कर्ष I या II सत्य है

D) न तो निष्कर्ष I और न ही II सत्य है

E) I और II दोनों निष्कर्ष सत्य हैं

प्रश्न 3: निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में तीन कथन के बाद दो निष्कर्ष I और II दिए गए हैं|आपको दिए गए तीनों कथन को सत्य मानना है भले ही वह ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न भी हो और फिर यह तय करना है कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन सा निष्कर्ष इन कथनों का तर्कसंगत अनुसरण करता है|

कथन:

केवल कुछ munch kitkat है

सभी kitkat perk है

कुछ perk éclair है

निष्कर्ष:

I. कुछ munch perk नहीं है

II. सभी éclair kitkat हो सकते है

A) दोनों निष्कर्ष I और निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है|

B) केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है|

C) केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है|

D) ना ही निष्कर्ष I ना ही निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है|

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

प्रश्न 4: निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में तीन कथन के बाद दो निष्कर्ष I और II दिए गए हैं|आपको दिए गए तीनों कथन को सत्य मानना है भले ही वह ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न भी हो और फिर यह तय करना है कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन सा निष्कर्ष इन कथनों का तर्कसंगत अनुसरण करता है|

कथन:

केवल unit digit है

कुछ number unit है

अधिकांश number alphabet है

निष्कर्ष:

I. सभी digit number हो सकते है

II. कुछ alphabet digit हो सकते है

A) दोनों निष्कर्ष I और निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है|

B) केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है|

C) केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है|

D) ना ही निष्कर्ष I ना ही निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है|

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

प्रश्न 5: निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में, कुछ तत्वों के बीच के सम्बन्ध को कथन में दर्शाया गया है|इन कथन के बाद दो निष्कर्ष दिए गए हैं|कथन को पढ़ें और उत्तर दें|

कथन: P > B ≥ C ≤ O; D > C > A; G < K ≤ A

निष्कर्ष:

I. D < P

II. O = K

A) केवल निष्कर्ष I सत्य है

B) केवल निष्कर्ष II सत्य है

C) या निष्कर्ष I या II सत्य है

D) ना ही निष्कर्ष I ना ही II सत्य है

E) दोनों निष्कर्ष I और II सत्य है

प्रश्न 6: यदि हम संख्या 7634528952 के सभी सम अंकों में एक जोड़े और सभी विषम अंकों से एक घटा दें तो पुनर्व्यवस्था के बाद बाएं छोर से दुसरे अंक और दाएँ छोर से छठे अंक का गुणनफल कितना होगा? 

A) 35

B) 28

C) 21

D) 63

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

निर्देश: नीचे दी गई जानकारी के आधार पर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।

11 डिब्बे (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y और Z) को एक के ऊपर एक इस तरह रखा गया है कि सबसे नीचे वाले डिब्बे की संख्या 1 है, उसके ऊपर वाला डिब्बा 2 है और इसी तरह आगे भी।

डिब्बा P और डिब्बा Y के बीच में तीन डिब्बे रखे हैं, और यह दोनों सम संख्या से अंकित डिब्बे हैं। डिब्बा P, डिब्बा 7 के नीचे नहीं है। डिब्बा P और डिब्बा Q के बीच दो डिब्बे हैं। डिब्बा Q और डिब्बा S के बीच अधिकतम एक डिब्बा है और डिब्बा S एक शुद्ध वर्ग संख्या से अंकित स्थान पर है। डिब्बा S, डिब्बा U के बगल में है। डिब्बा R, डिब्बा U से पाँच डिब्बे नीचे हैं। डिब्बा T, डिब्बा-X से तीन डिब्बे नीचे हैं और डिब्बा-X डिब्बा-R के बगल में है। डिब्बा V, Z के तत्काल ऊपर है।

प्रश्न 7: कौन-सा डिब्बा सबसे निचले स्थान पर रखा गया है?

A) T

B) V

C) Z

D) S

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 8: डिब्बा U के ऊपर कितने डिब्बे रखे गए हैं?

A) एक

B) दो

C) तीन

D) चार

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 9: डिब्बा W के तत्काल ऊपर कौन-सा डिब्बा रखा गया है?

A) R

B) Q

C) U

D) P

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

प्रश्न 10: डिब्बा U और डिब्बा Y के बीच कितने डिब्बे रखे गए हैं?

A) एक

B) तीन

C) पांच

D) सात

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 11: कौन-सा डिब्बा सबसे ऊपर रखा गया है?

A) Q

B) U

C) W

D) V

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

निर्देश: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवालों के उत्तर देंI

कुछ संख्या में व्यक्ति एक पंक्ति में उत्तर दिशा का सामना करते हुए बैठे हैंI पंक्ति में बैठे व्यक्तियों की संख्या 25 से कम एक अभाज्य संख्या हैI कोई भी सीट खाली नहीं हैI

A और E के ठीक बीच में C बैठा हैI G और H के बीच केवल पांच व्यक्ति बैठे हैI E P के तत्काल दाएँ बैठा हैI A F के बाएं से छठे स्थान पर बैठा हैI F G के दाएँ से दुसरे स्थान पर बैठा हैI B अंतिम बाएं छोर पर बैठा हैI B और A के बीच बैठे व्यक्तियों की संख्या C और E के बीच बैठे व्यक्तियों की संख्या से 2 कम हैI A बाएं छोर से सातवां व्यक्ति हैI H X के तत्काल बाएं बैठा हैI P और W के ठीक बीच में X बैठा हैI 

प्रश्न 12: दिए गए पंक्ति में कितने व्यक्ति बैठे हैं?

A) 17

B) 19

C) 23

D) 21

E) निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता

प्रश्न 13: W के सन्दर्भ में X का क्या स्थान है?

A) बाएं से तीसरा

B) दाएँ से चौथा

C) दाएँ से तीसरा

D) बाएं से चौथा

E) निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता

प्रश्न 14: G और X के बीच कितने व्यक्ति बैठे हैं?

A) 7

B) 5

C) 4

D) 6

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

प्रश्न 15: A के सन्दर्भ में P का क्या स्थान है?

A) दाएँ से पन्द्रहवां

B) बाएँ से पन्द्रहवां

C) दाएँ से चौदहवां

D) बाएं से चौदहवां

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

प्रश्न 16: यदि D X के बाएं से दुसरे स्थान पर बैठा है और R A के दाएँ से दुसरे स्थान पर बैठा है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है? 

A) A और D के बीच केवल सात व्यक्ति बैठे हैं

B) D W के दाएँ से तीसरे स्थान पर बैठा है 

C) R और D के बीच केवल छह व्यक्ति बैठे हैं

D) R और W के बीच केवल तीन व्यक्ति बैठे हैं

E) D और P के बीच केवल चार व्यक्ति बैठे हैं

प्रश्न 17: शब्द “QUADILATERAL” में अक्षरों के ऐसे कितने जोड़े हैं जिनके बीच उतने ही अक्षर हैं (आगे और पीछे दोनों) जितने कि अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में हैं?

A) दो 

B) पांच 

C) चार 

D) तीन 

E) पांच से अधिक 

प्रश्न 18: यदि शब्द “ENCOURAGEMENT” के बाएं छोर से तीसरे, आठवें और बारहवें अक्षर से एक अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बनाना संभव है, तो निर्मित शब्द के बाएं छोर से शब्द का दूसरा अक्षर कौन सा होगा? यदि ऐसा कोई शब्द नहीं बनाया जा सकता है, तो उत्तर ‘X’ को चिह्नित करें और यदि एक से अधिक शब्द बन सकते हैं तो उत्तर को ‘Y’ के रूप में चिह्नित करें।

A) O

B) N

C) R

D) X

E) Y

निर्देश: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवालों के उत्तर देंI

एक कूट भाषा में,

I. “Nature is my medicine” का कूट है “la, na, ma, pa”

II. “My medicine are lost” का कूट है “na, ra, pa, sa”

III. “Beautiful nature is lost” का कूट है “la, ta, ma, sa”,

IV. “Pure nature is beautiful” का कूट है “wa, ma, la, ta”

प्रश्न 19: “lost” शब्द के लिए कूट कौन सा है?

A) na

B) ra

C) pa

D) sa

E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 20: निम्नलिखित में से कौन से शब्द को “ta” के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया गया है?

A) beautiful

B) nature

C) is

D) lost

E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 21: दी गई कूट भाषा में “nature” को कैसे कूटबद्ध किया गया है?

A) ma

B) la

C) na

D) या तो (a) या (b)

E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 22: “medicine” शब्द के लिए कूट कौन सा है?

A) pa

B) na

C) la

D) या तो “pa” या “na”

E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 23: निम्नलिखित में से कौन से शब्द को “wa” के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया गया है?

A) pure

B) nature

C) is

D) beautiful

E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

निर्देश: दिए गए जानकारी के आधार पर सवालों के उत्तर देंI

एक चार-तलीय ईमारत के प्रत्येक तल पर दो प्रकार के फ्लैट हैं अर्थात A और BI सबसे निचले तल को 1 और शीर्षतम तल को 4 अंकित किया गया हैI फ्लैट A फ्लैट B के पश्चिम में हैI आठ व्यक्ति (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V और W) इन फ्लैट में रहते हैं, इस तरह प्रत्येक फ्लैट में एक व्यक्ति रहता हैI सभी फ्लैट का आयाम समान हैI

नोट: यदि यह दिया गया है कि ‘N’ ‘M’ के बगल में रहता है तो दोनों व्यक्ति समान तल पर रहते हैं जब तक कुछ और ना कहा जाएI यदि यह दिया गया है कि ‘N’ ‘M’ से एक/दो तल ऊपर/नीचे रहता है तो दोनों व्यक्ति समान प्रकार के फ्लैट में रहते हैं जब तक कुछ और ना कहा जाएI

S एक अभाज्य संख्या से अंकित तल पर रहता हैI P S के बगल में रहता हैI T P से एक तल नीचे रहता हैI T पहले तल में नहीं रहता हैI समान प्रकार के फ्लैट में V W से कम से कम दो तल ऊपर रहता हैI V फ्लैट B में नहीं रहता हैI W T के बगल में नहीं रहता हैI R Q से दो तल ऊपर रहता है पर समान प्रकार के फ्लैट में नहींI 

प्रश्न 24: P ______ के ऊपर रहता है (समान प्रकार के फ्लैट में)I

A) W

B) U

C) Q

D) R

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

प्रश्न 25: निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन निश्चित रूप से सत्य है?

A) V T से तीन तल ऊपर रहता है 

B) P फ्लैट A में रहता है

C) Q तीसरे तल पर रहता है

D) T Q के बगल में रहता है 

E) U चौथे तल पर फ्लैट B में रहता है

प्रश्न 26: _____ _____ तल पर फ्लैट A में रहता हैI

A) R, 4th

B) S, 1st

C) Q, 2nd

D) W, 3rd

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

प्रश्न 27: U का तल संख्या और फ्लैट का प्रकार क्या है?

A) 4-B

B) 1-B

C) 2-B

D) 3-A

E) इनमे से कोई नहीं

प्रश्न 28: विषम का चुनाव करेंI

A) S

B) P

C) Q

D) U

E) T

निर्देश: नीचे दी गई जानकारी के आधार पर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें:

तीन पीढ़ियों वाले परिवार में आठ सदस्य A, B, C, D, M, N, O और P हैं। परिवार में कोई भी अविवाहित एक अभिभावक नहीं है।

A P की माता है और P D की बहन है। P के नाना/दादा का विवाह M से हुआ है। O M का दामाद है। O D का पिता है और D N का साला/जीजा/देवर है। M की एक बहन है, जो B नहीं है।

प्रश्न 29: D, B से कैसे संबंधित है?

A) पोती/नातिन

B) दादा/नाना

C) पोता/नाती

D) दादी/नानी

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 30: ______ ______ का ससुर है।

A) M, B

B) B, A

C) C, D

D) O, N

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

निर्देश: नीचे दी गई जानकारी के आधार पर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।

सात व्यक्ति (A, B, C, D, E, F और G) एक वृत्ताकार मेज पर एक दूसरे से समान दूरी पर इस प्रकार बैठे हैं कि उनमें से कुछ का मुख केंद्र से बाहर की ओर है जबकि उनमें से कुछ का मुख केंद्र की ओर है। साथ बैठे दो से अधिक व्यक्तियों का मुख समान दिशा की ओर नहीं हैं।

F, A के बाएं से दूसरे स्थान पर बैठा है। F और C के बीच दो व्यक्ति बैठे हैं और C A के बगल में नहीं बैठा है। D B के दाएं से दूसरे स्थान पर बैठा है और B G के बगल में नहीं बैठा है। E C के तत्काल दाएं बैठा है। E और C दोनों का मुख A के दिशा के विपरीत ओर है। D का मुख केंद्र की ओर है। D के तत्काल पड़ोसियों का मुख E के विपरीत दिशा में है।

प्रश्न 31: ___A के दाएं से चौथे स्थान पर बैठा है।

A) B

B) D

C) G

D) C

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 32: कितने व्यक्तियों का मुख केंद्र की ओर है?

A) चार

B) चार से अधिक

C) तीन

D) या तो (a) या (c)

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 33: D के दाएं से दूसरे स्थान पर कौन बैठा है?

A) E

B) B

C) A

D) C

E) G

प्रश्न 34: विषम को खोजें।

A) B

B) D

C) C

D) E

E) F

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

प्रश्न 35: ___ B के तत्काल बाएं बैठा है, जिसका मुख _____ की ओर है।

A) A, केंद्र की ओर

B) F, केंद्र की ओर

C) A, केंद्र से बाहर

D) F, केंद्र से बाहर

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

निर्देश: नीचे दी गई जानकारी के आधार पर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।

सात व्यक्तियों, Ram, Raj, Jill, Jim, Sam, Tim और Tom के सात अलग-अलग पद, A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6 और A7 है, लेकिन ज़रूरी नहीं कि इसी क्रम में हों। यह पद वरीयता के घटते क्रम में इस प्रकार हैं, कि A1 सबसे वरिष्ठ पद है और A7 सबसे कनिष्ठ पद है। उनमें से प्रत्येक सात अलग-अलग शहरों – आगरा, कोच्चि, सूरत, पुणे, ठाणे, पटना और दिल्ली से है।

Ram, जो A5 है, आगरा से है। Jill Ram से दो पद वरिष्ठ हैं। वह व्यक्ति, जो A1 है, पटना से है। Jim उस व्यक्ति से एक पद वरिष्ठ है, जो पुणे से है। Jim A1 नहीं है। Sam A2 नहीं है। Sam Tim से दो पद वरिष्ठ हैं। Raj Kochi से हैं। न तो Jim और न ही Tim दिल्ली से हैं।

प्रश्न 36: Sam से ____ लोग कनिष्ठ हैं।

A) एक भी नहीं 

B) एक

C) तीन

D) पांच

E) छह

प्रश्न 37: Tim के पद और पुणे से संबंधित व्यक्ति के पद के बीच कितने पद हैं?

A) एक

B) दो

C) तीन

D) चार

E) पांच

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

प्रश्न 38: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन निश्चित रूप से सत्य है?

A) Jim सूरत से नहीं है।

B) वह व्यक्ति, जो ठाणे से है, A6 है

C) Sam Jill से एक पद कनिष्ठ है

D) Ram, Raj से दो पद वरिष्ठ हैं।

E) एक से अधिक कथन सत्य हैं।

प्रश्न 39: ____, जो ____ से है, Jim से तीन पद कनिष्ठ है।

A) Ram, आगरा

B) Jill, पुणे

C) Time, ठाणे

D) Raj, कोच्चि

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

प्रश्न 40: Sam, जो ___ से है, ___ है।

A) पुणे, A3

B) दिल्ली, A4

C) पटना, A1

D) दिल्ली, A6

E) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं 

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

ANSWER KEYS and SOLUTIONS

1) – A) 2) – A) 3) – B) 4) – D) 5) – D) 6) – B)

7) – C) 8) – A) 9) – D) 10) – C) 11) – A) 12) – C)

13) – B) 14) – D) 15) – A) 16) – C) 17) – B) 18) – D)

19) – D) 20) – A) 21) – D) 22) – D) 23) – A) 24) – B)

25) – D) 26) – C) 27) – B) 28) – D) 29) – C) 30) – D)

31) – B) 32) – A) 33) – D) 34) – E) 35) – A) 36) – C)

37) – B) 38) – E) 39) – A) 40) – B)

Solution 1: A)

Given statement: P ≥ R = C < A; R > O ≥ B; T < P < V.

On combining statements, we get,

C = R ≤ P < V and T < P ≥ R > O

Conclusions:

I. V > C: True (As, C = R ≤ P < V)

II. O ≤ T: False (As, T < P ≥ R > O, we cannot established any relationship between O and T.)

Hence, option a.

Solution 2: A)

Given statement: W ≤ A > X < M; Y < R ≥ A < Z

On combining statements, we get,

W ≤ A ≤ R

Conclusions:

I. R ≥ W: True (As, W ≤ A ≤ R, so, R ≥ W)

II. Y < X: False (As, Y < R ≥ A > X, we cannot establish the exact relation between Y and X)

Hence, option a.

Solution 3: B)

Following figures can be formed from the statements:

Since, all munch can be perk so, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, option b.

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

Solution 4: D)

Following figure can be formed from the statements:

Only unit is digit, i.e. all digits are only part of unit so, neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Hence, option d.

Solution 5: D)

Given statement: P > B ≥ C ≤ O; D > C > A; G < K ≤ A

On combining statements, we get,

P > B ≥ C > A ≥ K > G; O ≥ C > A ≥ K > G; P > B ≥ C < D

Conclusions:

I. D < P: False (As, P > B ≥ C < D, so, we cannot establish the exact relation between P and D)

II. O = K: False (As, O ≥ C > A ≥ K, so, O > K)

Hence, option d.

Solution 6: B)

Given number:

7634528952

After adding one to even digit and subtracting one from odd digit we get:

6725439843

2nd digit from the left end is 7. And 6th digit from the right end is 4.

So required product will be (7 x 4) =28.

Hence, option b.

RRB PO Prelims Free Mock

Solution 7: C)

Starting point: Start with placing box P and box Y as it will form three cases initially.

Clues:

1. There are three boxes kept between box P and box Y, and both of them are even numbered box.

2. Box P is not below box 7.

3. There are two boxes between box P and box Q.

Inferences:

From clue 1 and clue 2, we get, box Y is placed either at 6th or 4th position.

From clues 3,we get box Q is placed at 7th or at 11th or at 5th position.

Case 1: Box Y is places at 6th position:

PositionBox
11
10P
9
8
7Q
6Y
5
4
3
2
1

Case 2: Box Y is kept at 4th position:

Case 2(a): Box Q is kept at 11th position:

PositionBox
11Q
10
9
8P
7
6
5
4Y
3
2
1

Case 2(b): Box Q is kept at 5th position:

PositionBox
11
10
9
8P
7
6
5Q
4Y
3
2
1

Clues:

4. There is at most one box between box Q and box S, which is at a perfect square numbered position.

5. Box S is adjacent to box U.

6. Box R is five boxes below box U.

Inferences: 

From clue 4, case 2(b) is rejected as box S can’t be placed. Box Q is placed at 7th or at 11th position. And box S is placed at 9th position.

From clue 5, we get box U is placed at 8th position or at 10th position.

Case 1:

PositionBox
11
10P
9S
8U
7Q
6Y
5
4
3R
2
1

Case 2(a):

PositionBox
11Q
10U
9S
8P
7
6
5R
4Y
3
2
1

Clues:

7. Box T is three boxes below box X, which adjacent to box R.

8. Box V is immediately above Z.

Inferences:

From clue 7 and 8, case I is rejected as box V can’t be placed. Box X is placed at 6th position. Box T is at 3rd position. Box V and box Z are at 2ndand 1st position, respectively.

The final arrangement is as follows:

PositionBox
11Q
10U
9S
8P
7W
6X
5R
4Y
3T
2V
1Z

Box Z is placed at the bottommost position.

Hence, option c.

Solution 8: A)

Only one box is placed above box U.

Hence, option a.

Solution 9: D)

Box P is placed immediately above box W.

Hence, option d.

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Solution 10: C)

Five boxes are placed between box U and box Y.

Hence, option c.

Solution 11: A)

Box Q is placed at the topmost position.

Hence, option a.

Solution 12: C)

Starting Point: First try to fix A, as A is 7th person from the left end.

Clues:

1. A sits 6th to the left of F.

2. F sits 2nd to the right of G.

3. Only five persons sit between G and H.

Inferences:

From clue 1 and 2, G sits 4th to the right of A.

From clue 3, H sits either to the left of G or to the right of G.

Case 1: When H sits to the left of G.

H A G F

Case 2: When H sits to the right of G

A G F H

Clues:

1. C sits exactly between A and E.

2. B sits at extreme left end.

3. Number of persons between B and A is 2 less than the number of persons between C and E.

4. E sits immediate right of P.

Inferences:

From clue 1, 2 and 3, B sits at the extreme left end. The number of persons between C and E is 7. Also, the number of persons between A and C is 7.

Case 1: When H sits to the left of G.

B H A G F C PE

Case 2: When H sits to the right of G

B A G F C H PE

Clues:

1. H sits immediate left of X, who is exactly between P and W.

Inferences: 

From clue 1, case 1 gets eliminated. Also, W is immediate right of F.

So, the final arrangement is as follows:

B A G FWC HX PE

There are 23 persons in a row.

Hence, option c.

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Solution 13: B)

X is sitting 4th to the right of W.

Hence, option b.

Solution 14: D)

6 persons sits between G and X.

Hence, option d.

Solution 15: A)

P is sitting 15th to the right of A.

Hence, option a.

Solution 16: C)

B A R G FWCDHX PE

‘Only six persons sit between R and D’ is correct statement.

Hence, option c.

Solution 17: B)

QUADILATERAL

DL, RT, EI, AD and LQ are five such pairs, which have as many letters between them (both forward and backward) as in English alphabetical series.

Hence, option b.

Solution 18: D)

The 3rd, 8th and 12th letter of the word “ENCOURAGEMENT” are C, G, N.

No meaningful English word can be formed using C, G and N.

Hence, option d.

Solution 19: D)

From statement I, III and IV, we conclude that “nature” and “is” are coded as “ma” and “la” but not necessarily in the same order.

From statement I and II, we conclude that “medicine” and “my” are coded as “na” and “pa” but not necessarily in the same order.

From statement II and III, we conclude that “lost” is coded as “sa”.

From statement II alone, we conclude that “are” is coded as “ra”.

From statement III and IV, we conclude that “beautiful” is coded as “ta”

From statement IV alone, we conclude that “pure” is coded as “wa”.

The codes are shown below:

Wordsnatureismymedicinearelostbeautifulpure
Codesla /mama/lana/papa/narasatawa

The word “lost” is coded as “sa”.

Hence, option d.

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Solution 20: A)

The word “beautiful” is coded as “ta”.

Hence, option a.

Solution 21: D)

The word “nature” is coded as either “ma” or “la”.

Hence, option d.

Solution 22: D)

The word “medicine” is coded either as “pa” or “na”.

Hence, option d.

Solution 23: A)

The word “pure” is coded as “wa”.

Hence, option a.

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Solution 24: B)

Starting Point: Start with placing S, P and T in order to form less number of cases.

Clues:

1. S lives in a prime number floor.

2. P lives adjacent to S.

3. T lives one floor below P.

4. T doesn’t live in 1st floor.

Inference:

From Clue 1 and 2, we get S lives on 2nd or 3rd in Flat A or Flat B. P lives on 2nd or 3rd floor in Flat B or Flat A.

From Clue 3 and 4, we get S and P live on 3rd floor. S lives in either Flat A or Flat B and P lives in either Flat B or Flat A. T lives on 2nd floor either in Flat B or Flat A.

Case I: When S lives in Flat A.

FloorFlat AFlat B
4
3SP
2 T
1

Case II: When S lives in Flat B.

FloorFlat AFlat B
4
3PS
2T
1

Clues:

5. V lives at least two floors above W in the same type of flat.

6. V doesn’t live in Flat B.

7. W doesn’t live adjacent to T.

Inference:

From Clue 5 and 6, we get V lives in Flat A on 4th floor and W lives in Flat A on 1st or 2nd floor.

From Clue 7, we get W lives in Flat A on 1st floor.

Case I:

FloorFlat AFlat B
4V
3SP
2 T
1W

Case II:

FloorFlat AFlat B
4V
3PS
2T
1W

Clues:

8. R lives two floors above Q but not in same type of flat.

Inference:

From Clue 8 and 9, we eliminate Case II as we cannot place R. R lives in Flat B on 4th floor. Q lives in Flat A on 2nd floor. U lives in Flat B on 1stfloor.

The final arrangement is given below:

FloorFlat AFlat B
4VR
3SP
2QT
1WU

P lives above U (in the same type of flat).

Hence, option b.

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Solution 25: D)

‘T lives adjacent to Q’ is definitely true.

Hence, option d.

Solution 26: C)

Q lives in flat A on2ndfloor.

Hence, option c.

Solution 27: B)

U lives on 1st floor in Flat B.

Hence, option b.

Solution 28: D)

All live on prime numbered floor except U.

Hence, option d.

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Solution 29: C)

Clues:

1. A is mother of P, who is sister of D.

2. Grandfather of P is married to M.

3. O is son in law of M.

4. O is father of D, who is brother-in-law of N.

5. M has a sister, who is not B.

Inference:

From clue 1 and 2, we get, M is grandmother of P and D. M is either mother or mother-in-law of A.

From clue 3 and 4, we get, A is wife of O. M is mother of A.

From clue 4 and 5, we get, N is husband of P. B is husband of M and C is sister of M.

Therefore, the family tree is given below:

D is grandson of B.

Hence, option c.

Solution 30: D)

O is father-in-law of N.

Hence, option d.

Solution 31: B)

Starting Point: Start with A and F for least possible cases.

Clues: 

1. F sits 2nd to the left of A.

2. Two persons sit between F and C, who doesn’t sit adjacent to A.

Inferences:

From clue 1, we get A faces either towards the centre or away from the centre.

From clue 2, we get in both the case C sits 2nd to the right of A.

Case 1: When A faces towards the centre.

Case 2: When A faces away from the centre.

Clues:

1. E sits immediate right of C.

2. Both E and C face opposite direction to that of A.

Inferences:

From clue 1 and 2, we get both E and C face either away from the centre or towards the centre.

Case 1: When A faces towards the centre.

Case 2: When A faces away from the centre.

Clues:

1. D sits 2nd to the right of B, who doesn’t sit adjacent to G.

2. Immediate neighbours of D face opposite direction to that of E.

3. D faces towards the centre.

Inferences:

From clue 3, we get D faces towards the centre.

From clue 2, we get B sits immediate left of A and faces in opposite direction than A. Immediate neighbours of D either face or away from the centre.

Now, case 1, gets eliminated as more than two adjacent persons face in same direction.

The final arrangement is as follows:

D sits 4th to the right of A.

Hence, option b.

Solution 32: A)

Four persons face towards the centre.

Hence, option a.

Solution 33: D)

C sits 2nd to the right of D.

Hence, option d.

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Solution 34: E)

Except F, all face towards the centre.

Hence, option e.

Solution 35: A)

A sits immediate left of B, who faces towards the centre.

Hence, option a.

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Solution 36: C)

Starting point: Start with Ram and Jill to form a basic arrangement.

Direct clues:

1. Ram, who is A5, is from Agra.

2. Person, who is A1, is from Patna.

Clues:

1. Jill is two designations senior to Ram.

2. Jim is one designation senior to the one, who is from Pune.

3. Jim is not A1.

Inferences:

From clue 1, we get Jill is A3.

From clue 2 and clue 3, we get Jim is either A2 or A6.

Case 1: When Jim is A2.

DesignationPersonCity
A1 Patna
A2Jim
A3JillPune
A4
A5RamAgra
A6
A7

Case 2: When Jim is A6.

DesignationPersonCity
A1 Patna
A2
A3Jill
A4
A5RamAgra
A6Jim
A7 Pune

Clues:

1. Sam is not A2. Sam is two designations senior to Tim

2. Raj is from Kochi.

3. Neither Jim nor Tim is from Delhi.

Inferences:

Case 1:

From clue 1, case 2 gets rejected. Sam and Tim are A4 and A5, respectively.

From clue 2, we get Raj is A7. Also, Tom is A1.

From clue 3, we get Sam is from Delhi. Jim and Tim are from Surat and Thane, but not necessarily in the same order.

DesignationPersonCity
A1TomPatna
A2JimSurat/Thane
A3JillPune
A4SamDelhi
A5RamAgra
A6TimThane/Surat
A7RajKochi

Three people are junior to Sam.

Hence, option c.

Solution 37: B)

There are two designations lie between the designation of Tim and designation of the person, who is from Pune.

Hence, option b.

Solution 38: E)

Jim is either from Surat or Thane.

The one, who is from Thane, is either A6 or A2.

Sam is one designation junior to Jill, and Ram is two designations senior to Raj is definitely correct.

Hence, option e.

Solution 39: A)

Ram, who is from Agra, is three designations junior to Jim.

Hence, option a.

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Solution 40: B)

Sam, who is from Delhi, is A4.

Hence, option b.

Download 40 Important Reasoning Questions & Solutions PDF

This brings us to the end of the blog and here are around 40 practice questions for Reasoning. The PDF can be downloaded for free. Download PDF and keep practicing these latest RRB PO Prelims reasoning questions.

Cheena Sawhney

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